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NEET2023

NEET 2023

180 questions with step-by-step solutions. All free.

Physics

  1. Q1 In a series LCR circuit, the inductance is mH, capacitance is and resistance
  2. Q2The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is:
  3. Q3If the galvanometer does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of is given by:
  4. Q4The temperature of a gas is C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by times?
  5. Q5A Carnot engine has an efficiency of when its source is at a temperature C. The temperature of the sink is:
  6. Q6 A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of ms in the direction
  7. Q7 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of with an electric field of intensity
  8. Q8 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity. Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  9. Q9The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is:
  10. Q10 The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are eV, eV and eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons? …
  11. Q11The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of volts is proportional to:
  12. Q12 A V, W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding? …
  13. Q13Light travels a distance in time in air and in time in another denser medium. What is the critical angle for this medium?
  14. Q14 A metal wire has mass g, radius mm and length …
  15. Q15 For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below: Statement I: If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant. Statement II: If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  16. Q16The half life of a radioactive substance is minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to of its initial value?
  17. Q17The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is:
  18. Q18Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is . The colour of third band must be:
  19. Q19An ac source is connected to a capacitor . Due to decrease in its operating frequency:
  20. Q20A vehicle travels half the distance with speed and the remaining distance with speed . Its average speed is:
  21. Q21 The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius cm from a soap solution is nearly: (surface tension of soap solution N m
  22. Q22The venturi-meter works on:
  23. Q23In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is:
  24. Q24 The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by cm is . If the spring is stretched by cm, potential energy stored in it will be: …
  25. Q25 A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output? …
  26. Q26The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance carrying a current of A is:
  27. Q27If over a surface, then:
  28. Q28The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is:
  29. Q29 In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of Hz and amplitude
  30. Q30 Two bodies of mass and are placed at a distance . The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be ( gravitational constant): …
  31. Q31In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)?
  32. Q32 Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is ( m s
  33. Q33 A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period . If is the density of the earth and is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity
  34. Q34The - graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at s is:
  35. Q35For the following logic circuit, the truth table is:
  36. Q36 A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity m s. The ball strikes the water surface after
  37. Q37 Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be: …
  38. Q38 A wire carrying a current along the positive x-axis has length . It is kept in a magnetic field
  39. Q39 A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity . When bullet travels cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes
  40. Q40The resistance of platinum wire at C is and at C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
  41. Q41 An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure. The electric potential (in V) at point P due to the dipole is (
  42. Q42 resistors, each of resistance are connected in series to a battery of emf and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased times. The value of
  43. Q43 A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic field at point P for steady current configuration is given by: …
  44. Q44The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
  45. Q45The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be:

Chemistry

  1. Q1 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic. Reason R: The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  2. Q2 The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at C is ohm
  3. Q3 For a certain reaction, the rate , when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping conc…
  4. Q4Identify product (A) in the following reaction:
  5. Q5Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?
  6. Q6 Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outer most shell, is NH, AlCl
  7. Q7The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of N molecule, is
  8. Q8Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  9. Q9The number of bonds, bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:
  10. Q10The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is:
  11. Q11 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: A reaction can have zero activation energy. Reason R: The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  12. Q12Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P).
  13. Q13 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: In equation
  14. Q14Which amongst the following options is correct graphical representation of Boyle's Law?
  15. Q15 In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe due to the formation of: …
  16. Q16Identify the product in the following reaction:
  17. Q17 Select the correct Statements from the following: A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles. B. The mass of the electron is kg. C. All the isotopes of a given elements show s…
  18. Q18 A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The elements B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy of tetrahedral voids.…
  19. Q19 Given below are two statements: Statement I: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside Statement II: When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5'-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  20. Q20Which amongst the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene?
  21. Q21Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
  22. Q22Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
  23. Q23 Which of the following statements are NOT correct? A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals. B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism. C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils. D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any element. E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  24. Q24 Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles that will include: A. dipole - dipole forces. B. dipole - induced dipole forces C. hydrogen bonding D. covalent bonding E. dispersion forces Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  25. Q25Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ion acts as a Lewis acid?
  26. Q26The right option for the mass of CO produced by heating g of pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca )
  27. Q27 The relation between (
  28. Q28The stability of Cu is more than Cu salts in aqueous solution due to:
  29. Q29Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?
  30. Q30The given compound is an example of _____.
  31. Q31Complete the following reaction: [C] is _____.
  32. Q32Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is:
  33. Q33 Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is: …
  34. Q34Consider the following reaction: Identify products A and B:
  35. Q35Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?
  36. Q36 The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction
  37. Q37Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
  38. Q38Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  39. Q39Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction:
  40. Q40The reaction that does NOT take place in blast furnace between K to K temperature range during extraction of iron is:
  41. Q41 Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic. B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in ScO
  42. Q42Consider the following compounds/species: The number of compounds/species which obey Huckel's rule is ______.
  43. Q43What fraction of one edge centred octahedral void lies in one unit cell of fcc?
  44. Q44Which complex compound is most stable?
  45. Q45Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions:

Biology

  1. Q1 Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage. Reason R: Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from options given below: …
  2. Q2In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:
  3. Q3Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by:
  4. Q4Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
  5. Q5Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show:
  6. Q6Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
  7. Q7Axile placentation is observed in:
  8. Q8The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
  9. Q9The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at:
  10. Q10Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by:
  11. Q11Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in:
  12. Q12In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as:
  13. Q13Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because:
  14. Q14Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps hastening the maturity period, that leads early seed production?
  15. Q15 Given below are two statements: Statement I: The forces generated transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over meters height. Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes to degrees evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  16. Q16 Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae. …
  17. Q17 Identify the correct statements: A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  18. Q18 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels. Reason R: Cambium is less active in winters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  19. Q19Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
  20. Q20How many ATP and NADPH are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
  21. Q21In the equation , GPP is Gross Primary Productivity NPP is Net Primary Productivity R here is ________.
  22. Q22During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
  23. Q23What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
  24. Q24What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
  25. Q25Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:
  26. Q26In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ________ metal are used.
  27. Q27 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body. Statement II: Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  28. Q28 Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by: …
  29. Q29 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis. Reason R: First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1, 6-diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  30. Q30Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
  31. Q31 Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (). B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine developement is also expressed. C. The affected individual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  32. Q32Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  33. Q33 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem. Reason R: Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive node instead of leaves. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  34. Q34 Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents. Reason R: Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  35. Q35Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  36. Q36Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
  37. Q37Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of:
  38. Q38 Identify the correct statements: A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases. B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark. C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium. D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem. E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  39. Q39Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  40. Q40Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  41. Q41 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II: In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  42. Q42Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  43. Q43 Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  44. Q44Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  45. Q45 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  46. Q46Which of the following statements is correct?
  47. Q47Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?
  48. Q48Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
  49. Q49Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  50. Q50Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  51. Q51 Given below are two statements: Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal). Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of subunits (two subunits of type and two subunits of type.) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  52. Q52 Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system? A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Chloroplasts D. Golgi complex E. Peroxisomes Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  53. Q53 Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  54. Q54Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  55. Q55 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst. Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  56. Q56Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  57. Q57 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  58. Q58Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  59. Q59Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?
  60. Q60Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  61. Q61 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue. Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  62. Q62 Given below are two statements: Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  63. Q63Match List I with List II with respect to human eye. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  64. Q64Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
  65. Q65 Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle? A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  66. Q66Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  67. Q67 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. …
  68. Q68Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by:
  69. Q69Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  70. Q70Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  71. Q71Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
  72. Q72 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla. Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  73. Q73 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  74. Q74Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from:
  75. Q75Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ______.
  76. Q76In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
  77. Q77Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
  78. Q78Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  79. Q79 Select the correct statements with reference to chordates. A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord. B. Presence of closed circulatory system. C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits. D. Presence of dorsal heart E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  80. Q80The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:
  81. Q81The unique mammalian characteristics are:
  82. Q82 Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone? A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle D. Development of immune system E. Support the process of RBCs formation Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  83. Q83 Select the correct statements. A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene. B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate. C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene. D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase. E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  84. Q84Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options give below:
  85. Q85Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
  86. Q86 In cockroach, excretion is brought about by: A. Phallic gland B. Urecose gland C. Nephrocytes D. Fat body E. Collaterial glands Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  87. Q87 Given below are two statements: Statement I: During G phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive. Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  88. Q88 Which of the following statements are correct? A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors. B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis. C. ANF causes vasodilation. D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure. E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  89. Q89 Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle? A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle. B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions. C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins. D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  90. Q90 Which of the following statements are correct? A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus E. Basophils are agranulocytes Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …

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