NEET2025
NEET 2025
180 questions with step-by-step solutions. All free.
Physics
- Q1 Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at and can be taken to be very wide in the direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension and density …
- Q2 A microscope has an objective of focal length cm, eyepiece of focal length cm and the tube length of cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is cm, the magnification in the microscope is: …
- Q3 An electron (mass kg and charge
- Q4 There are two inclined surfaces of equal length () and same angle of inclination with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes …
- Q5 The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are J and J respectively. On applying brakes, car A stops after m and car B stops after m. If
- Q6The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:
- Q7 A bob of heavy mass is suspended by a light string of length . The bob is given a horizontal velocity
- Q8The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ________ gate.
- Q9 The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
- Q10 A ball of mass kg is dropped from a height of m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (take
- Q11 AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference
- Q12 A amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio . The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be: …
- Q13 In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power () and magnification () for each lens will be, respectively: …
- Q14 An oxygen cylinder of volume litre has moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to atmospheric pressure at temperature
- Q15In some appropriate units, time () and position () relation of a moving particle is given by . The acceleration of the particle is:
- Q16 To an ac power supply of V at Hz, a resistor of , a capacitor of reactance and an inductor of reactance
- Q17 The Sun rotates around its centre once in days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density. …
- Q18 A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is where is an integer,
- Q19 Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity while that in the middle has thermal conductivity . The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature and the right end at
- Q20 The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by . Two slabs of different dielectric constant and …
- Q21 Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every min. A girl is driving a scooty with a speed of km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every minutes in the direction of her motion, and every minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the …
- Q22 A uniform rod of mass kg and length m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the fl…
- Q23 In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency and average amplitude of the system change with time . Which one of the following options sche…
- Q24 A balloon is made of a material of surface tension and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has small area . It is filled with a gas of density and takes a spherical shape of radius . When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its …
- Q25 Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the M.S. is cm and the zero of V.S. is at
- Q26 A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is: …
- Q27An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index at Brewster's angle. Then:
- Q28 Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is and the force of repulsion between them is . A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with sphere B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as: …
- Q29 A container has two chambers of volumes litres and …
- Q30 A particle of mass is moving around the origin with a constant force pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius of the
- Q31 The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of year on Mercury? …
- Q32 A body weighs N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is: …
- Q33 A wire of resistance is cut into equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is: …
- Q34De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius nm):
- Q35 An electric dipole with dipole moment C m is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude
- Q36 A constant voltage of V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is: …
- Q37 A photon and an electron (mass ) have the same energy . The ratio
- Q38Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with property of light shown on the x-axis?
- Q39 A sphere of radius is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is: …
- Q40 A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes and
- Q41 Two gases and are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius
- Q42 A physical quantity is related to four observations , , and as follows: …
- Q43 The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at from the polarization axis of one of the polaroids, is (
- Q44 Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants and
- Q45 A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to: …
Chemistry
- Q1The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes and transitions, respectively, is:
- Q2 Which of the following statements are true? A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point. B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same. C. Ar, K, Cl
- Q3Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
- Q4Predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions:
- Q5Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He and Li are [Given J, pm]
- Q6 Which of the following are paramagnetic? A. [NiCl]
- Q7 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine. Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q8 Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements? A. [Ne]3s B. [Ar]3d
- Q9Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
- Q10Consider the following compounds: KO, HO and HSO. The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,
- Q11If the half-life () for a first order reaction is minute, then the time required for completion of the reaction is closest to:
- Q12 The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is: A. [Co(NH)
- Q13Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
- Q14 Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values
- Q15Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?
- Q16 If the molar conductivity () of a mol L
- Q17 Given below are two statements: Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q18Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?
- Q19Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Q20
- Q21Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Q22The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:
- Q23 Among the following choose the ones with equal number of atoms. A. 212 g of NaCO
- Q24Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Q25The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is:
- Q26 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism. Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr ion (
- Q27Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Q28 For the reaction A(g) 2B(g), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of , at K. [Given:
- Q29 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273–278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state. Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q30How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound?
- Q31Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of CH bond marked with is:
- Q32Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
- Q33The major product of the following reaction is:
- Q34Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
- Q35Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Q36 moles of liquid X and moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are torr and torr respectively. Which of the following is true regar…
- Q37Sugar 'X' A. is found in honey. B. is a keto sugar. C. exists in and - anomeric forms. D. is laevorotatory. 'X' is:
- Q38Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion:
- Q39 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): CHCH
- Q40 The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol, of Ba is: [Given: standard heat of formation of SO
- Q41Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula CHO is:
- Q42 Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned: (A) HO > NH
- Q43 Higher yield of NO in N(g) + O
- Q44 If the rate constant of a reaction is s, how much time does it take for mol L
- Q45Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test"?
Biology
- Q1Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
- Q2The first menstruation is called :
- Q3 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. In the light of the above statements, chocse the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q4 Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio cf the F2 generation? …
- Q5 Given below are two statements : Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
- Q6What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
- Q7 How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant? …
- Q8Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
- Q9 Consider the following : A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q10 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q11 The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q12In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
- Q13Match List I with List II: Choose the option with all correct matches.
- Q14 With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F generation. …
- Q15 Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones : (A) It causes pupilary constriction. (B) It is a hyperglycemic hormone. (C) It causes piloerection. (D) It increases strength of heart contraction. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q16Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
- Q17Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
- Q18 Given below are two statements: Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2 law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q19Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
- Q20All living members of the class Cyclostomata are :
- Q21Histones are enriched with -
- Q22Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
- Q23 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A), and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, chocse the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q24Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
- Q25Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- Q26The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
- Q27 Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q28Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
- Q29Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
- Q30Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
- Q31 Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products? A. Aspergillus niger B. Lactobacillus C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae E. Propionibacterium sharmanii Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q32 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
- Q33 Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is : A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q34 After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches Choose the correct answer from the opticns given below …
- Q35Match List I with List II: Choose the option with all correct matches.
- Q36 Read the following statements on plant growth and development. (A) Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. (B) Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. (C) Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. (D) Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. (E) Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements. …
- Q37Match List-I with List-II. Choose the option with all correct matches.
- Q38Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
- Q39Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
- Q40 Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following : …
- Q41Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of
- Q42Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
- Q43Match List I with List II : Choose the option with all correct matches.
- Q44In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
- Q45Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- Q46 Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q47Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
- Q48Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
- Q49 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, chocse the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q50 Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to : A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q51 Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte. E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q52 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, chocse the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q53Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
- Q54Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- Q55Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
- Q56Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
- Q57 Given below are two statements: Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
- Q58Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.
- Q59Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
- Q60Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- Q61 Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a floral formula stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and stands for inferior ovary.…
- Q62 From the statements given below choose the correct option : A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S. …
- Q63 Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization. A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin. B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization. C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization. E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q64 The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q65 Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. -interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q66 Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :
- Q67 Find the correct statement : (A) In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. (B) In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. (C) In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation. (D) In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. (E) In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q68Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
- Q69 Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
- Q70 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. In the light of the above statements, chocse the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
- Q71Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.
- Q72What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
- Q73In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :
- Q74Match List I with List II: Choose the option with all correct matches.
- Q75Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
- Q76 Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
- Q77Match List-I with List- II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- Q78Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Q79Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
- Q80 What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method? A. High fatality risk to mother B. Expensive instruments and reagents C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors D. Less adoption of orphans E. Not available in India F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q81Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
- Q82A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell well wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is
- Q83 In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies? …
- Q84What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
- Q85 Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
- Q86 While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal? …
- Q87Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
- Q88Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
- Q89Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
- Q90The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
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