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NEET2026

NEET 2026

180 questions with step-by-step solutions. All free.

Physics

  1. Q1For a simple pendulum, having time period T, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E) with time (t) is represented by :
  2. Q2A room heater is rated 400 W, 220V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately) ?
  3. Q3 The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is : …
  4. Q4 The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately : (Consider mass of the bob = 20 g) …
  5. Q5 A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively :…
  6. Q6 A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm. How deep can it go below the water surface ? (Consider the density of water = 1000 kg m, 1 atm =
  7. Q7Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  8. Q8Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  9. Q9 Five capacitors of capacitances
  10. Q10 The amount of work done to raise a mass ‘m’ from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth ‘R’, will be : …
  11. Q11 When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reactions times. (g = 9.8 ms) A. Person A has reaction time of 0.20 s B. Person B has reaction time of 0.22 s C. Person C has reaction time of 0.18 s D. Person D has reaction time of 0.19 s E. Person E has reaction time of 0.21 s What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person ? …
  12. Q12The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is : (g = 9.8 m/s)
  13. Q13 Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is : …
  14. Q14 An ac circuit contains a resistance of 1 k, a capacitor of 0.1 and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately : …
  15. Q15 The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius ‘a’ carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (B) with distance (r) from the axis of the conductor in the region is : …
  16. Q16 An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be : …
  17. Q17 The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value ? …
  18. Q18 In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength , the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is , is K units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is
  19. Q19 Four statements are given (A is mass number) : A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to . B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A. C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect. D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  20. Q20 In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy. B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  21. Q21 A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 . If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is : …
  22. Q22 In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell, E, and galvanometer, G, are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer: …
  23. Q23 Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum L, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as : (Take , and g = 9.8 m/s…
  24. Q24 Which of the following statements are correct ? A. Inside the conductor, the electrostatic field is zero. B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density. C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation. D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point. E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  25. Q25 Two statements are given below : A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly. B. This current is called reverse saturation current. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  26. Q26In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens, after refraction :
  27. Q27 An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of kg/m
  28. Q28 A galvanometer of resistance 100 gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0 – 10 A. The shunt required is : …
  29. Q29 A thin wire of length ‘L’ and linear mass density ‘m’ is bent into a circular ring (in x-y plane) with centre ‘C’ as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy’ will be: …
  30. Q30 For a travelling harmonic wave
  31. Q31 A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s is : (g = 10 m/s
  32. Q32In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode D will be of the form :
  33. Q33 A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 27°C. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases
  34. Q34Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  35. Q35 The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively : …
  36. Q36The current I in the circuit shown below is : (All diodes are ideal and identical)
  37. Q37 For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck’s constant as J s) …
  38. Q38 The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is : …
  39. Q39 A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm s, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be : …
  40. Q40 The following plots show variation of velocity (v) with time (t), of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct? …
  41. Q41In a vernier callipers, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier callipers is :
  42. Q42 Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to be 9.0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as kg m…
  43. Q43 A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QR) is parallel to its base (BC) and the angle of incidence (i) is 50°. Then the angle of deviation () is : …
  44. Q44 In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately : (Take 1 eV =
  45. Q45 A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 is bent to form a square loop (ABCD) (see figure). A resistance of 2 is connected between points B and D and a battery of 2 V is connected across points A and C as shown in the figure. Now the value of current (I) is : …

Chemistry

  1. Q1Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  2. Q2Calculate emf of the half cell given below : V Given : , log 2 = 0.3010
  3. Q3At 298K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of and HX, for is . What is the pH of this buffer solution?
  4. Q4Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which .
  5. Q5For a certain reaction R → Product, the plot of concentration [R] vs time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is :
  6. Q6 Consider the following reaction :
  7. Q7 Given below is an expression for the rate constant of a first order reaction occurring at a certain temperature, T (K).
  8. Q8 Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines : A. (i) LiAlH; (ii) H
  9. Q9The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is :
  10. Q10During Lassaigne’s test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from :
  11. Q11Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult’s law due to :
  12. Q12 In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute HSO
  13. Q13Identify the correct statement about ClF from the following options :
  14. Q14Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  15. Q15The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively are :
  16. Q16Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
  17. Q17 At a certain temperature, T(K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is: …
  18. Q18 Compound P(CH
  19. Q19The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :
  20. Q20In the following reaction sequence, X and Z, respectively are :
  21. Q21 When 1 dm of CO
  22. Q22The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively are :
  23. Q23Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  24. Q24The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is :
  25. Q25The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is : (Given : Molar mass of urea: 60 g mol, N particles mol)
  26. Q26 In a qualitative analysis, Bi is detected by appearance of precipitate of BiO(OH)(s). Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K :
  27. Q27Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  28. Q28 A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second ? …
  29. Q29The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is :
  30. Q30 Identify the correct statements : (A) The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass : 60 g mol) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m. (B) The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass : 40 g mol
  31. Q31Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?
  32. Q32The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is
  33. Q33Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  34. Q34 A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is : (Given : Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol; 1F = 96487 C mol
  35. Q35Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  36. Q36 The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is:
  37. Q37Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because :
  38. Q38Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form :
  39. Q39Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
  40. Q40 Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change that is observed at an alkaline pH close to the equivalence point during this titration is : …
  41. Q41Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
  42. Q42 The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z.
  43. Q43The calculated ‘spin-only’ magnetic moment of Ti (3d) is :
  44. Q44Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  45. Q45 Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence The suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is : …

Biology

  1. Q1In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?
  2. Q2In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?
  3. Q3In the lac operon, the z gene codes for
  4. Q4Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called
  5. Q5Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  6. Q6Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  7. Q7 Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes? …
  8. Q8Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?
  9. Q9The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is :
  10. Q10Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction :
  11. Q11Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  12. Q12 Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  13. Q13 Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5′-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3′-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  14. Q14Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?
  15. Q15Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  16. Q16Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?
  17. Q17
  18. Q18Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  19. Q19 Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence. A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  20. Q20 Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix ? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  21. Q21 Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C plants use the C
  22. Q22 Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence. A. Digestion of cell walls. B. Isolation of naked protoplasts. C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast. D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants. E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  23. Q23Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  24. Q24Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?
  25. Q25Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  26. Q26The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is
  27. Q27How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?
  28. Q28Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family?
  29. Q29Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?
  30. Q30 Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences. Choose the answer from the options given below : …
  31. Q31In racemose inflorescence, _________.
  32. Q32 Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis : A. Microspore tetrads B. Sporogenous tissue C. Pollen grains D. Pollen mother cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  33. Q33 Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  34. Q34 Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  35. Q35Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?
  36. Q36 Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  37. Q37“The Evil Quartet” of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?
  38. Q38Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  39. Q39Which one of the following is a triploid cell?
  40. Q40Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
  41. Q41Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  42. Q42 The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed By R.H. Whittaker (1969) included : A. Cell structure B. Body organization C. Presence of flagellum D. Reproduction E. Phylogenetic relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  43. Q43Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  44. Q44 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  45. Q45 Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule? …
  46. Q46Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  47. Q47 Arrange the following events occuring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate B. Reabsorption of Na and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone C. Fall in Glomerular filtration rate D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone. E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  48. Q48 In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order. A. Diffusion of O and CO
  49. Q49 The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order. A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells. B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood. C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs. D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood. E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  50. Q50Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E.coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:
  51. Q51 The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes : Identify the enzymes class ‘E’ from the following options : …
  52. Q52The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on __________.
  53. Q53 What is the probability of having children with ‘O’ blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively? …
  54. Q54Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  55. Q55Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?
  56. Q56 Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of A. Bulging eyes B. Vocal sacs C. Webbed digits in feet D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots Choose the correct answer from the options given below …
  57. Q57 A group of researchers procured some fish like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters? …
  58. Q58Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  59. Q59Match List I and List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  60. Q60 The WBC count of a person’s blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately? …
  61. Q61Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  62. Q62The human protein named α-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of _______.
  63. Q63Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes:
  64. Q64 Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature. Choose the answer from the options given below: …
  65. Q65Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.
  66. Q66Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?
  67. Q67 Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping. A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh blood and mother with Rh
  68. Q68Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  69. Q69Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  70. Q70The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.
  71. Q71 Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction. A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca
  72. Q72 Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  73. Q73 Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions statements to produce sperms. Select the correct from the following : A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  74. Q74The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in _______ related to the same nephron.
  75. Q75Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?
  76. Q76 Choose the correct statements regarding frog’s anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  77. Q77 Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  78. Q78 In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______. …
  79. Q79In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?
  80. Q80 Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side : A. Zona pellucida B. Perivitelline space C. Corona radiata D. Plasma membrane of ovum Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  81. Q81What is the reason behind production of large holes in ‘Swiss Cheese’?
  82. Q82 The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would contrl cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively? …
  83. Q83Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:
  84. Q84Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.
  85. Q85 Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions. A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  86. Q86 Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell. A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  87. Q87Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  88. Q88 Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is: …
  89. Q89The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:
  90. Q90 Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species. A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: …

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