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NEET2022

NEET 2022

180 questions with step-by-step solutions. All free.

Physics

  1. Q1Two hollow conducting spheres of radii and have equal charges. The potential would be :
  2. Q2 The angular speed on a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s is : …
  3. Q3In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in :
  4. Q4 Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is : …
  5. Q5A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is :-
  6. Q6 A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is : …
  7. Q7 The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is : …
  8. Q8 A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is …
  9. Q9 A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is …
  10. Q10 Let and
  11. Q11A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index , at an angle 60. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be :
  12. Q12If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble :
  13. Q13 Two resistors of resistance, 100 and 200 are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 to that in 200 in a given time is : …
  14. Q14The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength () of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is :
  15. Q15 A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is : …
  16. Q16The dimensions [MLT A] belong to the :
  17. Q17In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be :
  18. Q18 An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1,2,3 and 4 is : …
  19. Q19Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  20. Q20 The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30 and 45
  21. Q21 In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is : …
  22. Q22The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to:
  23. Q23 If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is: …
  24. Q24 Given below are two statements: Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element(Idl) of a current carrying conductor only. Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of change q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  25. Q25As the temperature increase, the electrical resistance :
  26. Q26The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is :
  27. Q27 A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is: …
  28. Q28In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is:
  29. Q29 A copper wire of length 10 m and radius
  30. Q30The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1, 2, 3 and 4 second
  31. Q31 An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms
  32. Q32The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is:
  33. Q33The area of a rectangular field (in m) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is :
  34. Q34 A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is: …
  35. Q35Match List - I with List - II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  36. Q36 Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is : …
  37. Q37 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  38. Q38 Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are m/s and
  39. Q39The truth table for the given logic circuit is :
  40. Q40 A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 F, resistance 50 is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200 sin (100 t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is
  41. Q41 A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q : …
  42. Q42 From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is: …
  43. Q43 A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is
  44. Q44 Two point charges and are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R L) varies as : …
  45. Q45 A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is: …

Chemistry

  1. Q1 Given below are two statements: Statement I : In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al Ba
  2. Q2Which statement regarding polymers is not correct ?
  3. Q3The incorrect statement regarding chirality is:
  4. Q4RMgX + CO Y RCOOH What is Y in the above reaction :
  5. Q5Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  6. Q6 Given below are two statements : - Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole-dipole interactions. Statements II : The boiling points aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  7. Q7Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  8. Q8Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure ? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture
  9. Q9Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  10. Q10 Given below are two statements: Statement I : The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order HO H
  11. Q11The IUPAC name of the complex - [Ag(HO)][Ag(CN)] is:
  12. Q12Which of the following is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene ?
  13. Q13 Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R) . Assertion (A) : ICl is more reactive than I. Reason(R) : I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  14. Q14 At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu/Cu, Zn
  15. Q15Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound ?
  16. Q16Choose the correct statement :
  17. Q17 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II : Primary aromatic amines react with HNO
  18. Q18 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R) : In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  19. Q19 The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds ? …
  20. Q20Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done ?
  21. Q21Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane ?
  22. Q22The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pK of CHCOOH = 4.57]
  23. Q23Which amongst following is incorrect statement ?
  24. Q24Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair-lone pair' electron repulsions ?
  25. Q25 What mass of 95% pure CaCO will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction ? CaCO
  26. Q26Identify the incorrect statement from the following
  27. Q27Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
  28. Q28The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is:
  29. Q29Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
  30. Q30 Given below are half cell reactions : MnO + 8H
  31. Q31Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  32. Q32 Given below are two statements: Statement I : The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group. Statement II : o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  33. Q33 The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of: (a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: …
  34. Q34The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :
  35. Q35 3O(g) 2O
  36. Q36Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  37. Q37 Given below are two statements : Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl, known as Lucas Reagent. Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate…
  38. Q38 In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from …
  39. Q39 For a first order reaction A Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min is …
  40. Q40 A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27 C. (Assume O
  41. Q41 The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes (A) [Ni(HO)
  42. Q42Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating ?
  43. Q43If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li ion?
  44. Q44 Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm
  45. Q45The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

Biology

  1. Q1Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation ?
  2. Q2 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II : Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  3. Q3Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :
  4. Q4 Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements : (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome. (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine. (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix. Choose the correct answer from the options below: …
  5. Q5 The flowers are Zygomorphic in : (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  6. Q6Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
  7. Q7Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity ?
  8. Q8Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
  9. Q9Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
  10. Q10What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid ?
  11. Q11Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for :
  12. Q12Which of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis ? It involves :
  13. Q13Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division ?
  14. Q14The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :
  15. Q15XO type of sex determination can be found in :
  16. Q16 Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants : …
  17. Q17 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  18. Q18What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation ?
  19. Q19 Identify the correct set of statements : (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea. (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves. (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  20. Q20Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from :
  21. Q21 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  22. Q22"Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which :
  23. Q23Which one of the following plants show vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens ?
  24. Q24 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  25. Q25The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
  26. Q26DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :
  27. Q27 Given below are two statements : Statement I : The primary CO acceptor in C
  28. Q28Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus ?
  29. Q29Which of the following is not a method of ex-situ conservation ?
  30. Q30The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :
  31. Q31Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
  32. Q32 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: …
  33. Q33Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit ?
  34. Q34 If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as : …
  35. Q35Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?
  36. Q36 While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction ? …
  37. Q37What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C plants ?
  38. Q38Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
  39. Q39 Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set on statements : (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) when fatty acids is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  40. Q40Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?
  41. Q41Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
  42. Q42In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme ?
  43. Q43Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :
  44. Q44Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
  45. Q45 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  46. Q46At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated ?
  47. Q47Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called :
  48. Q48 if '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ......... individuals per Drosophila per week. …
  49. Q49In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard ?
  50. Q50Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect ?
  51. Q51Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system ?
  52. Q52Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver ........ mL of O to the tissues.
  53. Q53Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :
  54. Q54Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
  55. Q55If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs ?
  56. Q56In-situ conservation refers to :
  57. Q57 Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. …
  58. Q58 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  59. Q59 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statements II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options give below : …
  60. Q60 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  61. Q61 In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because : …
  62. Q62Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms ?
  63. Q63 Given below are two statements : Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statements II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  64. Q64Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :
  65. Q65Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A:
  66. Q66Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as :
  67. Q67 A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is CH
  68. Q68Which of the following is not a connective tissue ?
  69. Q69Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands ?
  70. Q70 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statements II : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  71. Q71Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:
  72. Q72 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures. Reason (R) : Common cause of Osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  73. Q73In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in descending order is correct in case of animals ?
  74. Q74 In an E. coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome ? …
  75. Q75Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :
  76. Q76 Given below are two statements : Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  77. Q77Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  78. Q78Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  79. Q79Which one of the following statements is correct ?
  80. Q80 Which of the following are not the effect of Parathyroid hormone ? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca
  81. Q81Which of the following is a correct statement?
  82. Q82Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
  83. Q83 Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : …
  84. Q84 Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statements(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treatment of Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : …
  85. Q85 The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome ? …
  86. Q86 Ten E. coli cells with N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing
  87. Q87Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector ?
  88. Q88Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
  89. Q89Which of the following statements is not true?
  90. Q90If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour

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